Infinitesimal calculus MOC

Mean value theorem

The mean value theorem simply states that for suitably well-behaved functions there is always at least one point in an interval where the instantaneous derivative equals the average derivative for the whole interval. Suppose 𝑓 :[𝑎,𝑏] is continuous and is 𝐶1 differentiable on (𝑎,𝑏). Then there exists a 𝑐 (𝑎,𝑏) such that #m/thm/anal

𝑓(𝑐)=𝑓(𝑏)𝑓(𝑎)𝑏𝑎
Proof

Let

𝑟=𝑓(𝑏)𝑓(𝑎)𝑏𝑎

and define 𝑔(𝑥) =𝑓(𝑥) 𝑟𝑥, which is clearly 𝐶1 differentiable. Since 𝑔(𝑎) =𝑔(𝑏), it follows from Rolle's theorem that there exists a 𝑐 (𝑎,𝑏) such that 𝑔(𝑐) =0, i.e. 𝑓(𝑐) =𝑟, as required.

This is a simple generalization of Rolle's theorem for differentiable functions.


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