Infinitesimal calculus MOC

Mean value theorem

The mean value theorem simply states that for suitably well-behaved functions there is always at least one point in an interval where the instantaneous derivative equals the average derivative for the whole interval. Suppose 𝑓 :[𝑎,𝑏] →ℝ is continuous and is 𝐶1 differentiable on (𝑎,𝑏). Then there exists a 𝑐 ∈(𝑎,𝑏) such that #m/thm/anal

𝑓′(𝑐)=𝑓(𝑏)−𝑓(𝑎)𝑏−𝑎
Proof

Let

𝑟=𝑓(𝑏)−𝑓(𝑎)𝑏−𝑎

and define 𝑔(𝑥) =𝑓(𝑥) −𝑟𝑥, which is clearly 𝐶1 differentiable. Since 𝑔(𝑎) =𝑔(𝑏), it follows from Rolle's theorem that there exists a 𝑐 ∈(𝑎,𝑏) such that 𝑔′(𝑐) =0, i.e. 𝑓′(𝑐) =𝑟, as required.

This is a simple generalization of Rolle's theorem for differentiable functions.


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